DRUGS & SUPPLEMENTS
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Clear is a semi-synthetic macrolide antibiotic. Chemically, it is 6-0-methylerythromycin. The molecular formula is C38H69NO13, and the molecular weight is 747.96.
Clear is rapidly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract after oral administration. The absolute bioavailability of 250 mg Clear tablets was approximately 50%. For a single 500 mg dose of Clear, food slightly delays the onset of Clear absorption, increasing the peak time from approximately 2 to 2.5 hours. Food also increases the Clear peak plasma concentration by about 24%, but does not affect the extent of Clear bioavailability. Food does not affect the onset of formation of the antimicrobially active metabolite, 14-OH Clear or its peak plasma concentration but does slightly decrease the extent of metabolite formation, indicated by an 11% decrease in area under the plasma concentration-time curve (AUC). Therefore, Clear tablets may be given without regard to food.
In nonfasting healthy human subjects (males and females), peak plasma concentrations were attained within 2 to 3 hours after oral dosing. Steady-state peak plasma Clear concentrations were attained within 3 days and were approximately 1 to 2 mcg/mL with a 250 mg dose administered every 12 hours and 3 to 4 mcg/mL with a 500 mg dose administered every 8 to 12 hours. The elimination half-life of Clear was about 3 to 4 hours with 250 mg administered every 12 hours but increased to 5 to 7 hours with 500 mg administered every 8 to 12 hours. The nonlinearity of Clear pharmacokinetics is slight at the recommended doses of 250 mg and 500 mg administered every 8 to 12 hours. With a 250 mg every 12 hours dosing, the principal metabolite, 14-OH Clear, attains a peak steady-state concentration of about 0.6 mcg/mL and has an elimination half-life of 5 to 6 hours. With a 500 mg every 8 to 12 hours dosing, the peak steady-state concentration of 14-OH Clear is slightly higher (up to 1 mcg/mL), and its elimination half-life is about 7 to 9 hours. With any of these dosing regimens, the steady-state concentration of this metabolite is generally attained within 3 to 4 days.
After a 250 mg tablet every 12 hours, approximately 20% of the dose is excreted in the urine as Clear, while after a 500 mg tablet every 12 hours, the urinary excretion of Clear is somewhat greater, approximately 30%. In comparison, after an oral dose of 250 mg (125 mg/5 mL) suspension every 12 hours, approximately 40% is excreted in urine as Clear. The renal clearance of Clear is, however, relatively independent of the dose size and approximates the normal glomerular filtration rate. The major metabolite found in urine is 14-OH Clear, which accounts for an additional 10% to 15% of the dose with either a 250 mg or a 500 mg tablet administered every 12 hours.
Steady-state concentrations of Clear and 14-OH Clear observed following administration of 500 mg doses of Clear every 12 hours to adult patients with HIV infection were similar to those observed in healthy volunteers. In adult HIV-infected patients taking 500 mg or 1000 mg doses of Clear every 12 hours, steady-state Clear Cmax values ranged from 2 to 4 mcg/mL and 5 to 10 mcg/mL, respectively.
The steady-state concentrations of Clear in subjects with impaired hepatic function did not differ from those in normal subjects; however, the 14-OH Clear concentrations were lower in the hepatically impaired subjects. The decreased formation of 14-OH Clear was at least partially offset by an increase in renal clearance of Clear in the subjects with impaired hepatic function when compared to healthy subjects.
The pharmacokinetics of Clear was also altered in subjects with impaired renal function. (See PRECAUTIONS and DOSAGE AND ADMINISTRATION .)
Clear exerts its antibacterial action by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit of susceptible microorganisms resulting in inhibition of protein synthesis.
Clear is active in vitro against a variety of aerobic and anaerobic gram-positive and gram-negative microorganisms as well as most Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) microorganisms.
Additionally, the 14-OH Clear metabolite also has clinically significant antimicrobial activity. The 14-OH Clear is twice as active against Haemophilus influenzae microorganisms as the parent compound. However, for Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) isolates the 14-OH metabolite is 4 to 7 times less active than Clear. The clinical significance of this activity against Mycobacterium avium complex is unknown.
Clear has been shown to be active against most strains of the following microorganisms both in vitro and in clinical infections as described in the INDICATIONS AND USAGE section:
Aerobic Gram-positive Microorganisms
Aerobic Gram-negative Microorganisms
Chlamydia pneumoniae (TWAR)
Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) consisting of:
Beta-lactamase production should have no effect on Clear activity.
NOTE: Most strains of methicillin-resistant and oxacillin-resistant staphylococci are resistant to Clear.
Omeprazole/clarithromycin dual therapy; ranitidine bismuth citrate/clarithromycin dual therapy; omeprazole/clarithromycin/amoxicillin triple therapy; and lansoprazole/clarithromycin/amoxicillin triple therapy have been shown to be active against most strains of Helicobacter pylori in vitro and in clinical infections as described in the INDICATIONS AND USAGE section.
Clear pretreatment resistance rates were 3.5% (4/113) in the omeprazole/clarithromycin dual-therapy studies (M93-067, M93-100) and 9.3% (41/439) in the omeprazole/clarithromycin/amoxicillin triple-therapy studies (126, 127, M96-446). Clear pretreatment resistance was 12.6% (44/348) in the ranitidine bismuth citrate/clarithromycin b.i.d. versus t.i.d. clinical study (H2BA3001). Clear pretreatment resistance rates were 9.5% (91/960) by E-test and 11.3% (12/106) by agar dilution in the lansoprazole/clarithromycin/amoxicillin triple-therapy clinical trials (M93-125, M93-130, M93-131, M95-392, and M95-399).
Amoxicillin pretreatment susceptible isolates (less than 0.25 mcg/mL) were found in 99.3% (436/439) of the patients in the omeprazole/clarithromycin/amoxicillin clinical studies (126, 127, M96-446). Amoxicillin pretreatment minimum inhibitory concentrations (MICs) greater than 0.25 mcg/mL occurred in 0.7% (3/439) of the patients, all of whom were in the clarithromycin/amoxicillin study arm. Amoxicillin pretreatment susceptible isolates (less than 0.25 mcg/mL) occurred in 97.8% (936/957) and 98.0% (98/100) of the patients in the lansoprazole/clarithromycin/amoxicillin triple-therapy clinical trials by E-test and agar dilution, respectively. Twenty-one of the 957 patients (2.2%) by E-test and 2 of 100 patients (2.0%) by agar dilution had amoxicillin pretreatment MICs of greater than 0.25 mcg/mL. Two patients had an unconfirmed pretreatment amoxicillin minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) of greater than 256 mcg/mL by E-test
Amoxicillin Susceptibility Test Results and Clinical/Bacteriological Outcomes
In the omeprazole/clarithromycin/amoxicillin triple-therapy clinical trials, 84.9% (157/185) of the patients who had pretreatment amoxicillin susceptible MICs (less than 0.25 mcg/mL) were eradicated of H. pylori and 15.1% (28/185) failed therapy. Of the 28 patients who failed triple therapy, 11 had no post-treatment susceptibility test results, and 17 had post-treatment H. pylori isolates with amoxicillin susceptible MICs. Eleven of the patients who failed triple therapy also had post-treatment H. pylori isolates with Clear resistant MICs.
In the lansoprazole/clarithromycin/amoxicillin triple-therapy clinical trials, 82.6% (195/236) of the patients that had pretreatment amoxicillin susceptible MICs (less than 0.25 mcg/mL) were eradicated of H. pylori. Of those with pretreatment amoxicillin MICs of greater than 0.25 mcg/mL, three of six had the H. pylori eradicated. A total of 12.8% (22/172) of the patients failed the 10-and 14-day triple-therapy regimens. Post-treatment susceptibility results were not obtained on 11 of the patients who failed therapy. Nine of the 11 patients with amoxicillin post-treatment MICs that failed the triple-therapy regimen also had Clear resistant H. pylori isolates.
The following in vitro data are available, but their clinical significance is unknown. Clear exhibits in vitro activity against most strains of the following microorganisms; however, the safety and effectiveness of Clear in treating clinical infections due to these microorganisms have not been established in adequate and well-controlled clinical trials.
Aerobic Gram-positive Microorganisms
Streptococci (Groups C, F, G)
Viridans group streptococci
Aerobic Gram-negative Microorganisms
Anaerobic Gram-positive Microorganisms
Anaerobic Gram-negative Microorganisms
Prevotella melaninogenica (formerly Bacteriodes melaninogenicus)
Susceptibility Testing Excluding Mycobacteria and HelicobacterDilution Techniques
Quantitative methods are used to determine antimicrobial minimum inhibitory concentrations (MICs). These MICs provide estimates of the susceptibility of bacteria to antimicrobial compounds. The MICs should be determined using a standardized procedure. Standardized procedures are based on a dilution method1 (broth or agar) or equivalent with standardized inoculum concentrations and standardized concentrations of Clear powder. The MIC values should be interpreted according to the following criteria
A report of “Susceptible” indicates that the pathogen is likely to be inhibited if the antimicrobial compound in the blood reaches the concentrations usually achievable. A report of “Intermediate” indicates that the result should be considered equivocal, and, if the microorganism is not fully susceptible to alternative, clinically feasible drugs, the test should be repeated. This category implies possible clinical applicability in body sites where the drug is physiologically concentrated or in situations where high dosage of drug can be used. This category also provides a buffer zone which prevents small uncontrolled technical factors from causing major discrepancies in interpretation. A report of “Resistant” indicates that the pathogen is not likely to be inhibited if the antimicrobial compound in the blood reaches the concentrations usually achievable; other therapy should be selected.
Standardized susceptibility test procedures require the use of laboratory control microorganisms to control the technical aspects of the laboratory procedures. Standard Clear powder should provide the following MIC values
In vitro Activity of Clear against Mycobacteria
Clear has demonstrated in vitro activity against Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) microorganisms isolated from both AIDS and non-AIDS patients. While gene probe techniques may be used to distinguish M. avium species from M. intracellulare, many studies only reported results on M. avium complex (MAC) isolates.
Various in vitro methodologies employing broth or solid media at different pH’s, with and without oleic acid-albumin-dextrose-catalase (OADC), have been used to determine Clear MIC values for mycobacterial species. In general, MIC values decrease more than 16-fold as the pH of Middlebrook 7H12 broth media increases from 5.0 to 7.4. At pH 7.4, MIC values determined with Mueller-Hinton agar were 4- to 8-fold higher than those observed with Middlebrook 7H12 media. Utilization of oleic acid-albumin-dextrose-catalase (OADC) in these assays has been shown to further alter MIC values.
Clear activity against 80 MAC isolates from AIDS patients and 211 MAC isolates from non-AIDS patients was evaluated using a micro-dilution method with Middlebrook 7H9 broth. Results showed an MIC value of less than or equal to 4.0 mcg/mL in 81% and 89% of the AIDS and non-AIDS MAC isolates, respectively. Twelve percent of the non-AIDS isolates had an MIC value less than or equal to 0.5 mcg/mL. Clear was also shown to be active against phagocytized M. avium complex (MAC) in mouse and human macrophage cell cultures as well as in the beige mouse infection model.
Clear activity was evaluated against Mycobacterium tuberculosis microorganisms. In one study utilizing the agar dilution method with Middlebrook 7H10 media, 3 of 30 clinical isolates had an MIC of 2.5 mcg/mL. Clear inhibited all isolates at greater than 10.0 mcg/mL.
Susceptibility Testing for Mycobacterium avium Complex (MAC)
The disk diffusion and dilution techniques for susceptibility testing against gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria should not be used for determining Clear MIC values against mycobacteria. In vitro susceptibility testing methods and diagnostic products currently available for determining minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) values against Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) organisms have not been standardized or validated. Clear MIC values will vary depending on the susceptibility testing method employed, composition and pH of the media, and the utilization of nutritional supplements. Breakpoints to determine whether clinical isolates of M. avium or M. intracellulare are susceptible or resistant to Clear have not been established.
Susceptibility Test for Helicobacter pylori
The reference methodology for susceptibility testing of H. pylori is agar dilution MICs3 One to three micro-liters of an inoculum equivalent to a No. 2 McFarland standard (1 x 107-1 x 108 CFU/mL for H. pylori) are inoculated directly onto freshly prepared antimicrobial containing Mueller-Hinton agar plates with 5% aged defibrinated sheep blood (>2-weeks old). The agar dilution plates are incubated at 35°C in a microaerobic environment produced by a gas generating system suitable for Campylobacter species. After 3 days of incubation, the MICs are recorded as the lowest concentration of antimicrobial agent required to inhibit growth of the organism. The Clear and amoxicillin MIC values should be interpreted according to the following criteria
INDICATIONS AND USAGE
Clear tablets are indicated for the treatment of mild to moderate infections caused by susceptible strains of the designated microorganisms in the conditions as listed below:
Pharyngitis/Tonsillitis due to Streptococcus pyogenes (The usual drug of choice in the treatment and prevention of streptococcal infections and the prophylaxis of rheumatic fever is penicillin administered by either the intramuscular or the oral route. Clear is generally effective in the eradication of S. pyogenes from the nasopharynx; however, data establishing the efficacy of Clear in the subsequent prevention of rheumatic fever are not available at present.)
Acute maxillary sinusitis due to Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, or Streptococcus pneumoniae
Acute bacterial exacerbation of chronic bronchitis due to Haemophilus influenzae, Haemophilus parainfluenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, or Streptococcus pneumoniae
Community-Acquired Pneumonia due to Haemophilus influenzae, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, or Chlamydia pneumoniae (TWAR)
Uncomplicated skin and skin structure infections due to Staphylococcus aureus, or Streptococcus pyogenes (Abscesses usually require surgical drainage.)
Disseminated mycobacterial infections due to Mycobacterium avium, or Mycobacterium intracellulare
Clear tablets in combination with amoxicillin and lansoprazole or omeprazole delayed-release capsules, as triple therapy, are indicated for the treatment of patients with H. pylori infection and duodenal ulcer disease (active or five-year history of duodenal ulcer) to eradicate H. pylori.
Clear tablets in combination with omeprazole capsules or ranitidine bismuth citrate tablets are also indicated for the treatment of patients with an active duodenal ulcer associated with H. pylori infection. However, regimens which contain Clear as the single antimicrobial agent are more likely to be associated with the development of Clear resistance among patients who fail therapy. Clarithromycin-containing regimens should not be used in patients with known or suspected Clear resistant isolates because the efficacy of treatment is reduced in this setting.
In patients who fail therapy, susceptibility testing should be done if possible. If resistance to Clear is demonstrated, a non-clarithromycin-containing therapy is recommended. (For information on development of resistance see Microbiology section.) The eradication of H. pylori has been demonstrated to reduce the risk of duodenal ulcer recurrence.
Pharyngitis/Tonsillitis due to Streptococcus pyogenes
Community-Acquired Pneumonia due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, or Chlamydia pneumoniae (TWAR)
Acute maxillary sinusitis due to Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, or Streptococcus pneumoniae
Acute otitis media due to Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis,or Streptococcus pneumoniae
NOTE: For information on otitis media, see CLINICAL STUDIES: Otitis Media .
Uncomplicated skin and skin structure infections due to Staphylococcus aureus, or Streptococcus pyogenes (Abscesses usually require surgical drainage.)
Disseminated mycobacterial infections due to Mycobacterium avium, or Mycobacterium intracellulare
Clear tablets are indicated for the prevention of disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease in patients with advanced HIV infection.
To reduce the development of drug-resistant bacteria and maintain the effectiveness of Clear tablets and other antibacterial drugs, Clear tablets should be used only to treat or prevent infections that are proven or strongly suspected to be caused by susceptible bacteria. When culture and susceptibility information are available, they should be considered in selecting or modifying antibacterial therapy. In the absence of such data, local epidemiology and susceptibility patterns may contribute to the empiric selection of therapy
Clear is contraindicated in patients with a known hypersensitivity to Clear, erythromycin, or any of the macrolide antibiotics.
Concomitant administration of Clear and any of the following drugs is contraindicated: cisapride, pimozide, astemizole, terfenadine, and ergotamine or dihydroergotamine (see Drug Interactions ). There have been post-marketing reports of drug interactions when Clear and/or erythromycin are co-administered with cisapride, pimozide, astemizole, or terfenadine resulting in cardiac arrhythmias (QT prolongation, ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, and torsades de pointes) most likely due to inhibition of metabolism of these drugs by erythromycin and Clear. Fatalities have been reported.
For information about contraindications of other drugs indicated in combination with Clear, refer to the CONTRAINDICATIONS section of their package inserts.
Clear SHOULD NOT BE USED IN PREGNANT WOMEN EXCEPT IN CLINICAL CIRCUMSTANCES WHERE NO ALTERNATIVE THERAPY IS APPROPRIATE. IF PREGNANCY OCCURS WHILE TAKING THIS DRUG, THE PATIENT SHOULD BE APPRISED OF THE POTENTIAL HAZARD TO THE FETUS. Clear HAS DEMONSTRATED ADVERSE EFFECTS OF PREGNANCY OUTCOME AND/OR EMBRYO-FETAL DEVELOPMENT IN MONKEYS, RATS, MICE, AND RABBITS AT DOSES THAT PRODUCED PLASMA LEVELS 2 TO 17 TIMES THE SERUM LEVELS ACHIEVED IN HUMANS TREATED AT THE MAXIMUM RECOMMENDED HUMAN DOSES. (See PRECAUTIONS: Pregnancy .)
Clostridium difficile associated diarrhea (CDAD) has been reported with use of nearly all antibacterial agents, including Clear, and may range in severity from mild diarrhea to fatal colitis. Treatment with antibacterial agents alters the normal flora of the colon leading to overgrowth of C. difficile.
C. difficile produces toxins A and B which contribute to the development of CDAD. Hypertoxin producing strains of C. difficile cause increased morbidity and mortality, as these infections can be refractory to antimicrobial therapy and may require colectomy. CDAD must be considered in all patients who present with diarrhea following antibiotic use. Careful medical history is necessary since CDAD has been reported to occur over two months after the administration of antibacterial agents.
If CDAD is suspected or confirmed, ongoing antibiotic use not directed against C. difficile may need to be discontinued. Appropriate fluid and electrolyte management, protein supplementation, antibiotic treatment of C. difficile, and surgical evaluation should be instituted as clinically indicated.
There have been post-marketing reports of colchicine toxicity with concomitant use of Clear and colchicine, especially in the elderly, some of which occurred in patients with renal insufficiency. Deaths have been reported in some such patients. (See PRECAUTIONS .)
For information about warnings of other drugs indicated in combination with Clear, refer to the WARNINGS section of their package inserts.
Prescribing Clear tablets in the absence of a proven or strongly suspected bacterial infection or a prophylactic indication is unlikely to provide benefit to the patient and increases the risk of the development of drug-resistant bacteria.
Clear is principally excreted via the liver and kidney. Clear may be administered without dosage adjustment to patients with hepatic impairment and normal renal function. However, in the presence of severe renal impairment with or without coexisting hepatic impairment, decreased dosage or prolonged dosing intervals may be appropriate.
Clear in combination with ranitidine bismuth citrate therapy is not recommended in patients with creatinine clearance less than 25 mL/min. (See DOSAGE AND ADMINISTRATION .)
Clear in combination with ranitidine bismuth citrate should not be used in patients with a history of acute porphyria.
Exacerbation of symptoms of myasthenia gravis and new onset of symptoms of myasthenic syndrome has been reported in patients receiving Clear therapy.
For information about precautions of other drugs indicated in combination with Clear, refer to the PRECAUTIONS section of their package inserts.
Information for Patients
Patients should be counseled that antibacterial drugs including Clear should only be used to treat bacterial infections. They do not treat viral infections (e.g., the common cold). When Clear is prescribed to treat a bacterial infection, patients should be told that although it is common to feel better early in the course of therapy, the medication should be taken exactly as directed. Skipping doses or not completing the full course of therapy may (1) decrease the effectiveness of the immediate treatment and (2) increase the likelihood that bacteria will develop resistance and will not be treatable by Clear or other antibacterial drugs in the future.
Diarrhea is a common problem caused by antibiotics which usually ends when the antibiotic is discontinued. Sometimes after starting treatment with antibiotics, patients can develop watery and bloody stools (with or without stomach cramps and fever) even as late as two or more months after having taken the last dose of the antibiotic. If this occurs, patients should contact their physician as soon as possible.
Clear tablets may interact with some drugs; therefore patients should be advised to report to their doctor the use of any other medications.
Clear tablets can be taken with or without food and can be taken with milk.
Clear use in patients who are receiving theophylline may be associated with an increase of serum theophylline concentrations. Monitoring of serum theophylline concentrations should be considered for patients receiving high doses of theophylline or with baseline concentrations in the upper therapeutic range. In two studies in which theophylline was administered with Clear (a theophylline sustained-release formulation was dosed at either 6.5 mg/kg or 12 mg/kg together with 250 or 500 mg q12h Clear), the steady-state levels of Cmax, Cmin, and the area under the serum concentration time curve (AUC) of theophylline increased about 20%.
Concomitant administration of single doses of Clear and carbamazepine has been shown to result in increased plasma concentrations of carbamazepine. Blood level monitoring of carbamazepine may be considered.
When Clear and terfenadine were coadministered, plasma concentrations of the active acid metabolite of terfenadine were threefold higher, on average, than the values observed when terfenadine was administered alone. The pharmacokinetics of Clear and the 14-hydroxy-clarithromycin were not significantly affected by coadministration of terfenadine once Clear reached steady-state conditions. Concomitant administration of Clear with terfenadine is contraindicated. (See CONTRAINDICATIONS .)
Clear 500 mg every 8 hours was given in combination with omeprazole 40 mg daily to healthy adult subjects. The steady-state plasma concentrations of omeprazole were increased (Cmax, AUC0-24, and T1/2 increases of 30%, 89%, and 34%, respectively), by the concomitant administration of Clear. The mean 24-hour gastric pH value was 5.2 when omeprazole was administered alone and 5.7 when co-administered with Clear.
Co-administration of Clear with ranitidine bismuth citrate resulted in increased plasma ranitidine concentrations (57%), increased plasma bismuth trough concentrations (48%), and increased 14-hydroxy-clarithromycin plasma concentrations (31%). These effects are clinically insignificant.
Simultaneous oral administration of Clear tablets and zidovudine to HIV-infected adult patients resulted in decreased steady-state zidovudine concentrations. When 500 mg of Clear were administered twice daily, steady-state zidovudine AUC was reduced by a mean of 12% (n=4). Individual values ranged from a decrease of 34% to an increase of 14%. Based on limited data in 24 patients, when Clear tablets were administered two to four hours prior to oral zidovudine, the steady-state zidovudine Cmax was increased by approximately 2-fold, whereas the AUC was unaffected.
Simultaneous administration of Clear tablets and didanosine to 12 HIV-infected adult patients resulted in no statistically significant change in didanosine pharmacokinetics.
Concomitant administration of fluconazole 200 mg daily and Clear 500 mg twice daily to 21 healthy volunteers led to increases in the mean steady-state Clear Cmin and AUC of 33% and 18%, respectively. Steady-state concentrations of 14-OH Clear were not significantly affected by concomitant administration of fluconazole.
Concomitant administration of Clear and ritonavir (n=22) resulted in a 77% increase in Clear AUC and a 100% decrease in the AUC of 14-OH Clear. Clear may be administered without dosage adjustment to patients with normal renal function taking ritonavir. However, for patients with renal impairment, the following dosage adjustments should be considered. For patients with CLCR30 to 60 mL/min, the dose of Clear should be reduced by 50%. For patients with CLCR less than 30 mL/min, the dose of Clear should be decreased by 75%.
Spontaneous reports in the post-marketing period suggest that concomitant administration of Clear and oral anticoagulants may potentiate the effects of the oral anticoagulants. Prothrombin times should be carefully monitored while patients are receiving Clear and oral anticoagulants simultaneously.
Elevated digoxin serum concentrations in patients receiving Clear and digoxin concomitantly have also been reported in post-marketing surveillance. Some patients have shown clinical signs consistent with digoxin toxicity, including potentially fatal arrhythmias. Serum digoxin concentrations should be carefully monitored while patients are receiving digoxin and Clear simultaneously.
Colchicine is a substrate for both CYP3A and the efflux transporter, P-glycoprotein (Pgp). Clear and other macrolides are known to inhibit CYP3A and Pgp. When Clear and colchicine are administered together, inhibition of Pgp and/or CYP3A by Clear may lead to increased exposure to colchicine. Patients should be monitored for clinical symptoms of colchicine toxicity. (See WARNINGS .)
Erythromycin and Clear are substrates and inhibitors of the 3A isoform subfamily of the cytochrome P450 enzyme system (CYP3A). Coadministration of erythromycin or Clear and a drug primarily metabolized by CYP3A may be associated with elevations in drug concentrations that could increase or prolong both the therapeutic and adverse effects of the concomitant drug. Dosage adjustments may be considered, and when possible, serum concentrations of drugs primarily metabolized by CYP3A should be monitored closely in patients concurrently receiving Clear or erythromycin.
The following are examples of some clinically significant CYP3A based drug interactions. Interactions with other drugs metabolized by the CYP3A isoform are also possible. Increased serum concentrations of carbamazepine and the active acid metabolite of terfenadine were observed in clinical trials with Clear.
The following CYP3A based drug interactions have been observed with erythromycin products and/or with Clear in postmarketing experience:
There have been postmarketing reports of torsades de pointes occurring with concurrent use of Clear and quinidine or disopyramide. Electrocardiograms should be monitored for QTc prolongation during coadministration of Clear with these drugs. Serum concentrations of these medications should also be monitored.
Post-marketing reports indicate that coadministration of Clear with ergotamine or dihydroergotamine has been associated with acute ergot toxicity characterized by vasospasm and ischemia of the extremities and other tissues including the central nervous system. Concomitant administration of Clear with ergotamine or dihydroergotamine is contraindicated (see CONTRAINDICATIONS ).
Triazolobenziodidiazepines (such as Triazolam and Alprazolam) and Related Benzodiazepines (such as Midazolam)
Erythromycin has been reported to decrease the clearance of triazolam and midazolam, and thus, may increase the pharmacologic effect of these benzodiazepines. There have been post-marketing reports of drug interactions and CNS effects (e.g., somnolence and confusion) with the concomitant use of Clear and triazolam.
HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors
As with other macrolides, Clear has been reported to increase concentrations of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (e.g., lovastatin and simvastatin). Rare reports of rhabdomyolysis have been reported in patients taking these drugs concomitantly.
Erythromycin has been reported to increase the systemic exposure (AUC) of sildenafil. A similar interaction may occur with Clear; reduction of sildenafil dosage should be considered.
There have been spontaneous or published reports of CYP3A based interactions of erythromycin and/or Clear with cyclosporine, carbamazepine, tacrolimus, alfentanil, disopyramide, rifabutin, quinidine, methylprednisolone, cilostazol, and bromocriptine.
Concomitant administration of Clear with cisapride, pimozide, astemizole, or terfenadine is contraindicated (see CONTRAINDICATIONS ).
In addition, there have been reports of interactions of erythromycin or Clear with drugs not thought to be metabolized by CYP3A including hexobarbital, phenytoin, and valproate.
Carcinogenesis, Mutagenesis, Impairment of Fertility
The following in vitro mutagenicity tests have been conducted with Clear:
Salmonella/Mammalian Microsomes Test
Bacterial Induced Mutation Frequency Test
In Vitro Chromosome Aberration Test
Rat Hepatocyte DNA Synthesis Assay
Mouse Lymphoma Assay
Mouse Dominant Lethal Study
Mouse Micronucleus Test
All tests had negative results except the In Vitro Chromosome Aberration Test which was weakly positive in one test and negative in another.
In addition, a Bacterial Reverse-Mutation Test (Ames Test) has been performed on Clear metabolites with negative results.
Fertility and reproduction studies have shown that daily doses of up to 160 mg/kg/day (1.3 times the recommended maximum human dose based on mg/m2) to male and female rats caused no adverse effects on the estrous cycle, fertility, parturition, or number and viability of offspring. Plasma levels in rats after 150 mg/kg/day were 2 times the human serum levels.
In the 150 mg/kg/day monkey studies, plasma levels were 3 times the human serum levels. When given orally at 150 mg/kg/day (2.4 times the recommended maximum human dose based on mg/m2), Clear was shown to produce embryonic loss in monkeys. This effect has been attributed to marked maternal toxicity of the drug at this high dose.
In rabbits, in utero fetal loss occurred at an intravenous dose of 33 mg/m2, which is 17 times less than the maximum proposed human oral daily dose of 618 mg/m2.
Long-term studies in animals have not been performed to evaluate the carcinogenic potential of Clear.
PregnancyTeratogenic EffectsPregnancy Category C
Four teratogenicity studies in rats (three with oral doses and one with intravenous doses up to 160 mg/kg/day administered during the period of major organogenesis) and two in rabbits at oral doses up to 125 mg/kg/day (approximately 2 times the recommended maximum human dose based on mg/m2) or intravenous doses of 30 mg/kg/day administered during gestation days 6 to 18 failed to demonstrate any teratogenicity from Clear. Two additional oral studies in a different rat strain at similar doses and similar conditions demonstrated a low incidence of cardiovascular anomalies at doses of 150 mg/kg/day administered during gestation days 6 to 15. Plasma levels after 150 mg/kg/day were 2 times the human serum levels. Four studies in mice revealed a variable incidence of cleft palate following oral doses of 1000 mg/kg/day (2 and 4 times the recommended maximum human dose based on mg/m2, respectively) during gestation days 6 to 15. Cleft palate was also seen at 500 mg/kg/day. The 1000 mg/kg/day exposure resulted in plasma levels 17 times the human serum levels. In monkeys, an oral dose of 70 mg/kg/day (an approximate equidose of the recommended maximum human dose based on mg/m2) produced fetal growth retardation at plasma levels that were 2 times the human serum levels.
There are no adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women. Clear should be used during pregnancy only if the potential benefit justifies the potential risk to the fetus. (See WARNINGS .)
It is not known whether Clear is excreted in human milk. Because many drugs are excreted in human milk, caution should be exercised when Clear is administered to a nursing woman. It is known that Clear is excreted in the milk of lactating animals and that other drugs of this class are excreted in human milk. Preweaned rats, exposed indirectly via consumption of milk from dams treated with 150 mg/kg/day for 3 weeks, were not adversely affected, despite data indicating higher drug levels in milk than in plasma.
Safety and effectiveness of Clear in pediatric patients under 6 months of age have not been established. The safety of Clear has not been studied in MAC patients under the age of 20 months. Neonatal and juvenile animals tolerated Clear in a manner similar to adult animals. Young animals were slightly more intolerant to acute overdosage and to subtle reductions in erythrocytes, platelets and leukocytes but were less sensitive to toxicity in the liver, kidney, thymus, and genitalia.
In a steady-state study in which healthy elderly subjects (age 65 to 81 years old) were given 500 mg every 12 hours, the maximum serum concentrations and area under the curves of Clear and 14-OH Clear were increased compared to those achieved in healthy young adults. These changes in pharmacokinetics parallel known age-related decreases in renal function. In clinical trials, elderly patients did not have an increased incidence of adverse events when compared to younger patients. Dosage adjustment should be considered in elderly patients with severe renal impairment. (See WARNINGS and PRECAUTIONS .)
The majority of side effects observed in clinical trials were of a mild and transient nature. Fewer than 3% of adult patients without mycobacterial infections and fewer than 2% of pediatric patients without mycobacterial infections discontinued therapy because of drug-related side effects.
The most frequently reported events in adults taking Clear tablets were diarrhea (3%), nausea (3%), abnormal taste (3%), dyspepsia (2%), abdominal pain/discomfort (2%), and headache (2%). In pediatric patients, the most frequently reported events were diarrhea (6%), vomiting (6%), abdominal pain (3%), rash (3%), and headache (2%). Most of these events were described as mild or moderate in severity. Of the reported adverse events, only 1% was described as severe.
In the acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis and acute maxillary sinusitis studies overall gastrointestinal adverse events were reported by a similar proportion of patients taking either Clear tablets or Clear extended-release tablets; however, patients taking Clear extended-release tablets reported significantly less severe gastrointestinal symptoms compared to patients taking Clear tablets. In addition, patients taking Clear extended-release tablets had significantly fewer premature discontinuations for drug-related gastrointestinal or abnormal taste adverse events compared to Clear tablets.
In community-acquired pneumonia studies conducted in adults comparing Clear to erythromycin base or erythromycin stearate, there were fewer adverse events involving the digestive system in clarithromycin-treated patients compared to erythromycin-treated patients (13% vs 32%; p less than 0.01). Twenty percent of erythromycin-treated patients discontinued therapy due to adverse events compared to 4% of clarithromycin-treated patients.
In two U.S. studies of acute otitis media comparing Clear to amoxicillin/potassium clavulanate in pediatric patients, there were fewer adverse events involving the digestive system in clarithromycin-treated patients compared to amoxicillin/potassium clavulanate-treated patients (21% vs 40%, p less than 0.001). One-third as many clarithromycin-treated patients reported diarrhea as did amoxicillin/potassium clavulanate-treated patients.
Allergic reactions ranging from urticaria and mild skin eruptions to rare cases of anaphylaxis, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, and toxic epidermal necrolysis have occurred. Other spontaneously reported adverse events include glossitis, stomatitis, oral moniliasis, anorexia, vomiting, pancreatitis, tongue discoloration, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, neutropenia, and dizziness. There have been reports of tooth discoloration in patients treated with Clear. Tooth discoloration is usually reversible with professional dental cleaning. There have been isolated reports of hearing loss, which is usually reversible, occurring chiefly in elderly women. Reports of alterations of the sense of smell, usually in conjunction with taste perversion or taste loss have also been reported.
Transient CNS events including anxiety, behavioral changes, confusional states, convulsions, depersonalization, disorientation, hallucinations, insomnia, manic behavior, nightmares, psychosis, tinnitus, tremor, and vertigo have been reported during post-marketing surveillance. Events usually resolve with discontinuation of the drug.
Hepatic dysfunction, including increased liver enzymes, and hepatocellular and/or cholestatic hepatitis, with or without jaundice, has been infrequently reported with Clear. This hepatic dysfunction may be severe and is usually reversible. In very rare instances, hepatic failure with fatal outcome has been reported and generally has been associated with serious underlying diseases and/or concomitant medications.
There have been rare reports of hypoglycemia, some of which have occurred in patients taking oral hypoglycemic agents or insulin.
As with other macrolides, Clear has been associated with QT prolongation and ventricular arrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia and torsades de pointes.
There have been reports of interstitial nephritis coincident with Clear use.
There have been post-marketing reports of colchicine toxicity with concomitant use of Clear and colchicine, especially in the elderly, some of which occurred in patients with renal insufficiency. Deaths have been reported in some such patients. (See WARNINGS and PRECAUTIONS .)
Changes in Laboratory Values
Changes in laboratory values with possible clinical significance were as follows:
Hepatic – elevated SGPT (ALT) less than 1%; SGOT (AST) less than 1%; GGT less than 1%; alkaline phosphatase less than 1%; LDH less than 1%; total bilirubin less than 1%
Hematologic – decreased WBC less than 1%; elevated prothrombin time 1%
Renal – elevated BUN 4%; elevated serum creatinine less than 1% GGT, alkaline phosphatase, and prothrombin time data are from adult studies only.
Overdosage of Clear can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as abdominal pain, vomiting, nausea, and diarrhea.
Adverse reactions accompanying overdosage should be treated by the prompt elimination of unabsorbed drug and supportive measures. As with other macrolides, Clear serum concentrations are not expected to be appreciably affected by hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis.
DOSAGE AND ADMINISTRATION . pylori Eradication to Reduce the Risk of Duodenal Ulcer RecurrenceTriple Therapy: Clarithromycin/Lansoprazole/Amoxicillin
The recommended adult dose is 500 mg Clear, 30 mg lansoprazole, and 1 gram amoxicillin, all given twice daily (q12h) for 10 or 14 days. (See INDICATIONS AND USAGE and CLINICAL STUDIES sections.)
Triple Therapy: Clarithromycin/Omeprazole/Amoxicillin
The recommended adult dose is 500 mg Clear, 20 mg omeprazole, and 1 gram amoxicillin, all given twice daily (q12h) for 10 days. (See INDICATIONS AND USAGE and CLINICAL STUDIES sections.) In patients with an ulcer present at the time of initiation of therapy, an additional 18 days of omeprazole 20 mg once daily is recommended for ulcer healing and symptom relief.
Dual Therapy: Clarithromycin/Omeprazole
The recommended adult dose is 500 mg Clear given three times daily (q8h) and 40 mg omeprazole given once daily (qAM) for 14 days. (See INDICATIONS AND USAGE and CLINICAL STUDIES sections.) An additional 14 days of omeprazole 20 mg once daily is recommended for ulcer healing and symptom relief.
Dual Therapy: Clarithromycin/Ranitidine Bismuth Citrate
The recommended adult dose is 500 mg Clear given twice daily (q12h) or three times daily (q8h) and 400 mg ranitidine bismuth citrate given twice daily (q12h) for 14 days. An additional 14 days of 400 mg twice daily is recommended for ulcer healing and symptom relief. Clear and ranitidine bismuth citrate combination therapy is not recommended in patients with creatinine clearance less than 25 mL/min. (See INDICATIONS AND USAGE and CLINICAL STUDIES sections.)
The usual recommended daily dosage is 15 mg/kg/day divided q12h for 10 days
Clear may be administered without dosage adjustment in the presence of hepatic impairment if there is normal renal function. However, in the presence of severe renal impairment (CRCL less than 30 mL/min), with or without coexisting hepatic impairment, the dose should be halved or the dosing interval doubled.
The recommended dose of Clear for the prevention of disseminated Mycobacterium avium disease is 500 mg b.i.d. In children, the recommended dose is 7.5 mg/kg b.i.d. up to 500 mg b.i.d. No studies of Clear for MAC prophylaxis have been performed in pediatric populations and the doses recommended for prophylaxis are derived from MAC treatment studies in children. Dosing recommendations for children are in the table above.
Clear is recommended as the primary agent for the treatment of disseminated infection due to Mycobacterium avium complex. Clear should be used in combination with other antimycobacterial drugs that have shown in vitro activity against MAC or clinical benefit in MAC treatment. (See CLINICAL STUDIES .) The recommended dose for mycobacterial infections in adults is 500 mg b.i.d. In children, the recommended dose is 7.5 mg/kg b.i.d. up to 500 mg b.i.d. Dosing recommendations for children are in the table above.
Clear therapy should continue for life if clinical and mycobacterial improvements are observed.
Clear tablets 250 mg are white, oval-shaped, film-coated tablets, debossed GG C6 on one side and plain on the reverse side, and are supplied as follows:
Clear tablets 500 mg are white, oval-shaped, film-coated tablets, debossed GG C9 on one side and plain on the reverse side, and are supplied as follows:
Store at 20°-25°C (68°-77°F).
Dispense in a tight container as described in the USP. Protect from light.
CLINICAL STUDIES Mycobacterial InfectionsProphylaxis
A randomized, double-blind study (561) compared Clear 500 mg b.i.d. to placebo in patients with CDC-defined AIDS and CD4 counts less than 100 cells/µL. This study accrued 682 patients from November 1992 to January 1994, with a median CD4 cell count at study entry of 30 cells/µL. Median duration of Clear was 10.6 months vs. 8.2 months for placebo. More patients in the placebo arm than the Clear arm discontinued prematurely from the study (75.6% and 67.4%, respectively). However, if premature discontinuations due to MAC or death are excluded, approximately equal percentages of patients on each arm (54.8% on Clear and 52.5% on placebo) discontinued study drug early for other reasons. The study was designed to evaluate the following endpoints:
In patients randomized to Clear, the risk of MAC bacteremia was reduced by 69% compared to placebo. The difference between groups was statistically significant (p less than 0.001). On an intent-to-treat basis, the one-year cumulative incidence of MAC bacteremia was 5.0% for patients randomized to Clear and 19.4% for patients randomized to placebo. While only 19 of the 341 patients randomized to Clear developed MAC, 11 of these cases were resistant to Clear. The patients with resistant MAC bacteremia had a median baseline CD4 count of 10 cells/mm3 (range 2 to 25 cells/mm3). Information regarding the clinical course and response to treatment of the patients with resistant MAC bacteremia is limited. The 8 patients who received Clear and developed susceptible MAC bacteremia had a median baseline CD4 count of 25 cells/mm3 (range 10 to 80 cells/mm3). Comparatively, 53 of the 341 placebo patients developed MAC; none of these isolates were resistant to Clear. The median baseline CD4 count was 15 cells/mm3 (range 2 to 130 cells/mm3) for placebo patients that developed MAC.
Since the analysis at 18 months includes patients no longer receiving prophylaxis the survival benefit of Clear may be underestimated.
Clinically Significant Disseminated MAC Disease
In association with the decreased incidence of bacteremia, patients in the group randomized to Clear showed reductions in the signs and symptoms of disseminated MAC disease, including fever, night sweats, weight loss, and anemia.
In AIDS patients treated with Clear over long periods of time for prophylaxis against M. avium, it was often difficult to distinguish adverse events possibly associated with Clear administration from underlying HIV disease or intercurrent illness. Median duration of treatment was 10.6 months for the Clear group and 8.2 months for the placebo group.
Among these events, taste perversion was the only event that had significantly higher incidence in the clarithromycin-treated group compared to the placebo-treated group.
Discontinuation due to adverse events was required in 18% of patients receiving Clear compared to 17% of patients receiving placebo in this trial. Primary reasons for discontinuation in Clear treated patients include headache, nausea, vomiting, depression and taste perversion.
Changes in Laboratory Values of Potential Clinical ImportanceTreatment
Three randomized studies (500, 577, and 521) compared different dosages of Clear in patients with CDC-defined AIDS and CD4 counts less than 100 cells/mcL. These studies accrued patients from May 1991 to March 1992. Study 500 was randomized, double-blind; Study 577 was open-label compassionate use. Both studies used 500 and 1000 mg b.i.d. doses; Study 500 also had a 2000 mg b.i.d. group. Study 521 was a pediatric study at 3.75, 7.5, and 15 mg/kg b.i.d. Study 500 enrolled 154 adult patients, Study 577 enrolled 469 adult patients, and Study 521 enrolled 25 patients between the ages of 1 to 20. The majority of patients had CD4 cell counts less than 50/mcL at study entry. The studies were designed to evaluate the following end points:
The results for the 500 study are described below. The 577 study results were similar to the results of the 500 study. Results with the 7.5 mg/kg b.i.d. dose in the pediatric study were comparable to those for the 500 mg b.i.d. regimen in the adult studies.
Study 069 compared the safety and efficacy of Clear in combination with ethambutol versus Clear in combination with ethambutol and clofazimine for the treatment of disseminated MAC (dMAC) infection4. This 24-week study enrolled 106 patients with AIDS and dMAC, with 55 patients randomized to receive Clear and ethambutol, and 51 patients randomized to receive Clear, ethambutol, and clofazimine. Baseline characteristics between study arms were similar with the exception of median CFU counts being at least 1 log higher in the Clear, ethambutol, and clofazimine arm.
Compared to prior experience with Clear monotherapy, the two-drug regimen of Clear and ethambutol was well tolerated and extended the time to microbiologic relapse, largely through suppressing the emergence of Clear resistant strains. However, the addition of clofazimine to the regimen added no additional microbiologic or clinical benefit. Tolerability of both multidrug regimens was comparable with the most common adverse events being gastrointestinal in nature. Patients receiving the clofazimine-containing regimen had reduced survival rates; however, their baseline mycobacterial colony counts were higher. The results of this trial support the addition of ethambutol to Clear for the treatment of initial dMAC infections but do not support adding clofazimine as a third agent.
Decreases in MAC bacteremia or negative blood cultures were seen in the majority of patients in all dose groups. Mean reductions in colony forming units (CFU) are shown below. Included in the table are results from a separate study with a four drug regimen5 (ciprofloxacin, ethambutol, rifampicin, and clofazimine). Since patient populations and study procedures may vary between these two studies, comparisons between the Clear results and the combination therapy results should be interpreted cautiously.
significant differences were seen beyond that point. The percent of patients whose blood was sterilized as shown by one or more negative cultures at any time during acute therapy was 61% (30/49) for the 500 mg b.i.d. group and 59% (29/49) and 52% (25/48) for the 1000 and 2000 mg b.i.d. groups, respectively. The percent of patients who had 2 or more negative cultures during acute therapy that were sustained through study Day 84 was 25% (12/49) in both the 500 and 1000 mg b.i.d. groups and 8% (4/48) for the 2000 mg b.i.d. group. By Day 84, 23% (11/49), 37% (18/49), and 56% (27/48) of patients had died or discontinued from the study, and 14% (7/49), 12% (6/49), and 13% (6/48) of patients had relapsed in the 500, 1000, and 2000 mg b.i.d. dose groups, respectively. All of the isolates had an MIC less than 8 mcg/mL at pre-treatment. Relapse was almost always accompanied by an increase in MIC. The median time to first negative culture was 54, 41, and 29 days for the 500, 1000, and 2000 mg b.i.d. groups, respectively. The time to first decrease of at least 1 log in CFU count was significantly shorter with the 1000 and 2000 mg b.i.d. doses (median equal to 16 and 15 days, respectively) in comparison to the 500 mg b.i.d. group (median equal to 29 days). The median time to first positive culture or study discontinuation following the first negative culture was 43, 59 and 43 days for the 500, 1000, and 2000 mg b.i.d. groups, respectively.
Clinically Significant Disseminated MAC Disease
Among patients experiencing night sweats prior to therapy, 84% showed resolution or improvement at some point during the 12 weeks of Clear at 500 to 2000 mg b.i.d. doses. Similarly, 77% of patients reported resolution or improvement in fevers at some point. Response rates for clinical signs of MAC are given below
The median duration of response, defined as improvement or resolution of clinical signs and symptoms, was 2 to 6 weeks.
Since the study was not designed to determine the benefit of monotherapy beyond 12 weeks, the duration of response may be underestimated for the 25 to 33% of patients who continued to show clinical response after 12 weeks.
Median survival time from study entry (Study 500) was 249 days at the 500 mg b.i.d. dose compared to 215 days with the 1000 mg b.i.d. dose. However, during the first 12 weeks of therapy, there were 2 deaths in 53 patients in the 500 mg b.i.d. group versus 13 deaths in 51 patients in the 1000 mg b.i.d. group. The reason for this apparent mortality difference is not known. Survival in the two groups was similar beyond 12 weeks. The median survival times for these dosages were similar to recent historical controls with MAC when treated with combination therapies.5
Median survival time from study entry in Study 577 was 199 days for the 500 mg b.i.d. dose and 179 days for the 1000 mg b.i.d. dose. During the first four weeks of therapy, while patients were maintained on their originally assigned dose, there were 11 deaths in 255 patients taking 500 mg b.i.d. and 18 deaths in 214 patients taking 1000 mg b.i.d.
The adverse event profiles showed that both the 500 and 1000 mg b.i.d. doses were well tolerated. The 2000 mg b.i.d. dose was poorly tolerated and resulted in a higher proportion of premature discontinuations.
In AIDS patients and other immunocompromised patients treated with the higher doses of Clear over long periods of time for mycobacterial infections, it was often difficult to distinguish adverse events possibly associated with Clear administration from underlying signs of HIV disease or intercurrent illness.
The following analyses summarize experience during the first 12 weeks of therapy with Clear. Data are reported separately for Study 500 (randomized, double-blind) and Study 577 (open-label, compassionate use) and also combined. Adverse events were reported less frequently in Study 577, which may be due in part to differences in monitoring between the two studies. In adult patients receiving Clear 500 mg b.i.d., the most frequently reported adverse events, considered possibly or probably related to study drug, with an incidence of 5% or greater, are listed below. Most of these events were mild to moderate in severity, although 5% (Study 500: 8%; Study 577: 4%) of patients receiving 500 mg b.i.d. and 5% (Study 500: 4%; Study 577: 6%) of patients receiving 1000 mg b.i.d. reported severe adverse events. Excluding those patients who discontinued therapy or died due to complications of their underlying non-mycobacterial disease, approximately 8% (Study 500: 15%; Study 577: 7%) of the patients who received 500 mg b.i.d. and 12% (Study 500: 14%; Study 577: 12%) of the patients who received 1000 mg b.i.d. discontinued therapy due to drug-related events during the first 12 weeks of therapy. Overall, the 500 and 1000 mg b.i.d. doses had similar adverse event profiles.
image of label
Depending on the reaction of the Clear after taken, if you are feeling dizziness, drowsiness or any weakness as a reaction on your body, Then consider Clear not safe to drive or operate heavy machine after consumption. Meaning that, do not drive or operate heavy duty machines after taking the capsule if the capsule has a strange reaction on your body like dizziness, drowsiness. As prescribed by a pharmacist, it is dangerous to take alcohol while taking medicines as it exposed patients to drowsiness and health risk. Please take note of such effect most especially when taking Primosa capsule. It's advisable to consult your doctor on time for a proper recommendation and medical consultations.Is Clear addictive or habit forming?
Medicines are not designed with the mind of creating an addiction or abuse on the health of the users. Addictive Medicine is categorically called Controlled substances by the government. For instance, Schedule H or X in India and schedule II-V in the US are controlled substances.
Please consult the medicine instruction manual on how to use and ensure it is not a controlled substance.In conclusion, self medication is a killer to your health. Consult your doctor for a proper prescription, recommendation, and guidiance.
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The information was verified by Dr. Rachana Salvi, MD Pharmacology